MCCQE Exam Preparation Material | MCCQE Part 1 Exam

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Question#1

8 °C, oral (36.5C37.5)
Which one of the following places this patient at risk for sepsis?

A. Functional asplenia
B. Neutrophil dysfunction
C. Immunoglobulin deficiency
D. Chronic anemia
E. Systemic iron overload

Explanation:
Patients with sickle cell anemia often develop functional asplenia due to repeated splenic infarction. The spleen plays a critical role in clearing encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. Functional asplenia significantly increases the risk of overwhelming sepsis.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Hematology, “Sickle Cell Disease”:
“Functional asplenia is common in sickle cell disease and increases the risk for sepsis due to impaired clearance of encapsulated bacteria.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-2: Hematology):
“Candidates must recognize that patients with functional asplenia are at increased risk for sepsis and require prompt evaluation for fever.”
Neutrophil dysfunction (B) and immunoglobulin deficiency (C) are not typical features of sickle cell anemia.
Chronic anemia (D) and iron overload (E) do not directly increase sepsis risk.

Question#2

A 42-year-old man presents to your office with acute left knee pain and difficulty walking. He denies any trauma. He reports 2 painful episodes involving his right great toe in the last year. He smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day and drinks at least 3 beers daily. He has a temperature of 38.2°C and has a red, swollen and warm left knee.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Aspirate the knee joint.
B. Order radiography of the knee.
C. Start acetaminophen.
D. Start indomethacin.
E. Order blood cultures.

Explanation:
The patient presents with an acutely inflamed joint and fever, raising concern for septic arthritis. A history of gout does not exclude infection. The first and most urgent step in any monoarthritis with systemic signs (fever) is joint aspiration to assess for crystals, white cells, and organisms.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Rheumatology, “Monoarthritis”:
“Always rule out septic arthritis in a hot, swollen joint, especially when fever is present. Joint aspiration is essential to differentiate infection from crystal arthropathy.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Rheumatology > 49-1):
“Candidates must identify red flags for septic arthritis and understand that arthrocentesis is the first step in diagnosis and management.”
Initiating NSAIDs or acetaminophen without diagnosis (C, D) can delay appropriate care. Radiographs (B) do not help differentiate gout from infection acutely. Blood cultures (E) may help, but aspiration is more diagnostic.

Question#3

A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy.
After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Arrange for a hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.
B. Prescribe vaginal metronidazole gel.
C. Start vaginal estrogen.
D. Wash the pessary and recommend a daily saline douche.
E. Perform a vaginal biopsy.

Explanation:
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Gynecology, “Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care” Section:
“Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
“Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries.”
A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.

Question#4

Your colleague's receptionist asks you to assess her 4-year-old daughter who has had 2 episodesof acute otitis media in the last month. The mother wants you to arrange a consultation with an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist to get a tympanostomy before her daughter starts school. You do not believe there is a surgical indication at this time.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Explain that there is no indication for the surgery but refer her daughter for consultation.
B. Suggest that the next time they go to the Emergency Department for quicker access to the ENT consultant.
C. Ask another family physician to see the daughter due to a conflict of interest.
D. Decline to send her daughter for consultation and explain your decision.
E. Call the ENT consultant on call to discuss your dilemma.

Explanation:
Referrals should be medically indicated. Physicians are not obligated to refer simply because a patient (or colleague) request it, especially when it may lead to unnecessary care. The ethical and appropriate action is to explain your medical reasoning and decline an unwarranted referral.
Toronto Notes 2023 C ELOM, “Professionalism and Resource Stewardship” Section:
“Physicians have a responsibility to act as gatekeepers to specialist services and should not refer patients when criteria are not met. Explaining the reasoning and declining the request respectfully is appropriate.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Clinical Judgment):
“Candidates must demonstrate ethical reasoning in managing requests for unwarranted interventions.”
Involving the emergency department (B) or another physician (C) is not appropriate unless there's a true conflict of interest. Calling a consultant (E) may be unnecessary if no medical reason exists.

Question#5

A couple is diagnosed with primary infertility secondary to azoospermia. They are not interested in in vitro fertilization techniques, so you recommend insemination with a sperm donor. The male partner is hesitant. He thinks he might have difficulty accepting raising a child who is not biologically his.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Arranging a consultation with a psychologist
B. Tell the couple adoption is a better option
C. Suggest transfer of care to another physician
D. Propose a trial of ovulation induction with gonadotropins
E. Recommend that the donor be a person who is known and significant to the couple

Explanation:
When couples face infertility-related decisions―particularly involving donor insemination―psychosocial counseling is essential. A mental health consultation helps explore emotional concerns, expectations, and readiness for non-biological parenting.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Gynecology, “Infertility and ART”:
“Psychological counseling is recommended for couples considering donor gametes to address emotional, ethical, and identity issues before proceeding.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Reproductive Ethics > 83-1):
“Candidates must understand the ethical and psychosocial considerations of assisted reproductive techniques and provide appropriate referrals.”
Suggesting adoption or switching care dismisses valid concerns (B, C). Ovulation induction (D) does not address azoospermia.

Exam Code: MCCQE
Q & A: 230 Q&As         Updated:  Oct 17,2026

 

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