NetSec-Generalist

Explanation:
A Best Practice Assessment (BPA) evaluates firewall configurations against Palo Alto Networks' recommended best practices. In this case, the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) update settings do not align with best practices, as they are currently set to weekly updates, which delays threat prevention.
Best Practices for Dynamic Updates in the Precision AI Bundle Applications and Threats C Update Daily
Regular updates ensure the firewall detects and blocks the latest exploits, vulnerabilities, and malware.
Weekly updates are too slow and leave the network vulnerable to newly discovered attacks. WildFire C Update Every Five Minutes
WildFire is Palo Alto Networks' cloud-based malware analysis engine, which identifies and mitigates new threats in near real-time.
Updating every five minutes ensures that newly discovered malware signatures are applied quickly.
A weekly update would significantly delay threat response.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(B) Antivirus should be updated daily.
While frequent updates are recommended, Antivirus in Palo Alto firewalls is updated hourly by default (not daily).
(D) URL Filtering should be updated hourly.
URL Filtering databases are updated dynamically in the cloud, and do not require fixed hourly updates.
URL filtering effectiveness depends on cloud integration rather than frequent updates.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment C Ensuring dynamic updates align with best practices enhances security.
Security Policies C Applications, Threats, and WildFire updates are critical for enforcing protection policies.
Threat Prevention & WildFire C Frequent updates reduce the window of exposure to new threats.
Panorama C Updates can be managed centrally for branch offices.
Zero Trust Architectures C Requires real-time threat intelligence updates.
Thus, Applications & Threats (A) should be updated daily, and WildFire (C) should be updated every five minutes to maintain optimal security posture in accordance with BPA recommendations.

Explanation:
An ION device (used in Prisma SD-WAN) must be configured in Analytics mode at a newly acquired site to audit traffic without steering it. This mode allows administrators to monitor network behavior without actively modifying traffic paths.
Why Analytics Mode is the Correct Choice?
Passively Observes Traffic
The ION device monitors and logs site traffic for analysis.
No active control over routing or traffic flow is applied.
Useful for Network Auditing Before Full Deployment
Analytics mode provides visibility into site traffic before committing to SD-WAN policy changes.
Helps identify optimization opportunities and troubleshoot connectivity before enabling traffic
steering.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Access Mode C Enables active routing and steering of traffic, which is not desired for passive auditing.
(B) Control Mode C Actively controls traffic flows and enforces policies, not suitable for observation-only setups.
(C) Disabled Mode C The device would not function in this mode, making it useless for traffic monitoring.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment C Prisma SD-WAN ION devices must be placed in Analytics mode for initial audits.
Zero Trust Architectures C Helps assess security risks before enabling active controls.
Thus, Analytics Mode (D) is the correct answer, as it allows auditing of site traffic without traffic steering.

Explanation:
When a user authenticates and connects to a GlobalProtect gateway, the firewall can collect and evaluate device information using Host Information Profile (HIP). This feature helps enforce security policies based on the device’s posture before granting or restricting network access.
Why is HIP the Correct Answer?
What is HIP?
Host Information Profile (HIP) is a feature in GlobalProtect that gathers security-related information from the endpoint device, such as:
OS version
Patch level
Antivirus status
Disk encryption status
Host-based firewall status
Running applications
How Does HIP Work?
When a user connects to a GlobalProtect gateway, their device submits its HIP report to the firewall.
The firewall evaluates this information against configured security policies.
If the device meets security compliance, access is granted; otherwise, remediation actions (e.g., blocking access) can be applied.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) RADIUS Authentication C While RADIUS is used for user authentication, it does not collect device security posture.
(B) IP Address C The user's IP address is tracked but does not provide device security information.
(D) Session ID C A session ID identifies the user session but does not collect host-based security details.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment C HIP profiles help enforce security policies based on device posture.
Security Policies C Administrators use HIP checks to restrict non-compliant devices.
Threat Prevention & WildFire C HIP ensures that endpoints are properly patched and protected.
Panorama C HIP reports can be monitored centrally via Panorama.
Zero Trust Architectures C HIP enforces device trust in Zero Trust models.
Thus, Host Information Profile (HIP) is the correct answer, as it collects device security information when a user connects to a GlobalProtect gateway.

Explanation:
Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is a cryptographic feature in SSL/TLS key exchange that ensures each session uses a unique key that is not derived from previous sessions. This prevents attackers from decrypting historical encrypted traffic even if they obtain the server’s private key.
When SSL Inbound Inspection is enabled on a Palo Alto Networks Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), the firewall decrypts inbound encrypted traffic destined for an internal server to inspect it for threats, malware, or policy violations.
Firewall Behavior with PFS and SSL Inbound Inspection
Meddler-in-the-Middle (MITM) Role C Since PFS prevents session key reuse, the firewall cannot use static keys for decryption. Instead, it must act as a man-in-the-middle (MITM) between the client and the internal server.
Decryption Process C
The firewall terminates the SSL session from the external client.
It then establishes a new encrypted session between itself and the internal server.
This allows the firewall to decrypt, inspect, and then re-encrypt traffic before forwarding it to the server.
Security Implications C
This approach ensures threat detection and policy enforcement before encrypted traffic reaches critical internal servers.
However, it breaks end-to-end encryption since the firewall acts as an intermediary.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
B. It acts transparently between the client and the internal server. ❌
Incorrect, because SSL Inbound Inspection requires the firewall to actively terminate and re-establish SSL connections, making it a non-transparent MITM.
C. It decrypts inbound and outbound SSH connections. ❌
Incorrect, because SSL Inbound Inspection applies only to SSL/TLS traffic, not SSH connections. SSH decryption requires a different feature (e.g., SSH Proxy).
D. It decrypts traffic between the client and the external server. ❌
Incorrect, because SSL Inbound Inspection is designed to inspect traffic destined for an internal server, not external connections. SSL Forward Proxy would be used for outbound traffic decryption.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment C SSL Inbound Inspection is used in enterprise environments to monitor encrypted traffic heading to internal servers.
Security Policies C Decryption policies control which inbound SSL sessions are decrypted.
VPN Configurations C PFS is commonly used in IPsec VPNs, ensuring that keys change per session.
Threat Prevention C Enables deep inspection of SSL/TLS traffic to detect malware, exploits, and data leaks.
WildFire Integration C Extracts potentially malicious files from encrypted traffic for advanced sandboxing and malware detection.
Panorama C Provides centralized management of SSL decryption logs and security policies.
Zero Trust Architectures C Ensures encrypted traffic is continuously inspected, aligning with Zero Trust security principles.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ A. It acts as meddler-in-the-middle between the client and the internal server