SC-900 Exam Preparation Material | Microsoft Security Compliance and Identity Fundamentals

Prepare for the SC-900 with reliable study materials, practice questions, and key exam insights.

Prepare for the SC-900 Microsoft Security Compliance and Identity Fundamentals exam with CertQueen's independently developed study resources. Review important concepts, practice scenario-based questions, and use clear explanations to identify areas that require further study.

Question#1

Which feature is included in Microsoft Entra ID Governance?

A. Verifiable credentials
B. Permissions Management
C. Identity Protection
D. Privileged Identity Management

Explanation:
Microsoft defines Microsoft Entra ID Governance as the capability to manage “the identity lifecycle, access lifecycle, and privileged access” so organizations can ensure “the right people have the right access to the right resources at the right time.” The product family explicitly lists the following core features: “Lifecycle workflows, Entitlement management, Access reviews, and Privileged Identity Management (PIM).” Microsoft further explains that PIM helps you “manage, control, and monitor access within your organization,” enabling just-in-time elevation, approval workflows, MFA/justification on activation, and detailed auditing for privileged roles. By contrast, the other options are separate Microsoft Entra offerings outside ID Governance: Verifiable credentials (Microsoft Entra Verified ID) issues and validates digital credentials; Permissions Management (Microsoft Entra Permissions Management) provides CIEM for multi-cloud permissions; and Identity Protection offers risk-based detection and policies for sign-ins and users. Therefore, among the choices, the feature that is included in Microsoft Entra ID Governance is Privileged Identity Management (PIM), which is specifically called out by Microsoft as a pillar of ID Governance and is used to govern privileged access with policy-based controls, time-bound assignments, approvals, and comprehensive auditability.

Question#2

What can you use to protect against malicious links sent in email messages, chat messages, and channels?

A. Microsoft Defender for Identity
B. Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
C. Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps
D. Microsoft Defender for Office 365

Explanation:
Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is the Microsoft 365 solution designed to protect users from threats delivered through email and collaboration workloads. SCI training material explains that Defender for Office 365 protects Exchange Online, Microsoft Teams, SharePoint Online, and OneDrive for Business by detecting and blocking malware, phishing, and other advanced attacks that use messages and shared content as the delivery channel.
A key capability is Safe Links, which specifically protects against malicious URLs. When a user receives an email, Teams chat message, or channel post that contains a hyperlink, Safe Links scans and rewrites that URL. At the moment the user clicks, the link is checked again; if it is identified as malicious or leads to a known phishing or malware-hosting site, access is blocked and a warning page is shown. This time-of-click protection is emphasized in Microsoft’s security documentation as a primary defense against weaponized links in email and collaborative communications.
By comparison, Microsoft Defender for Identity focuses on detecting identity-related threats in on-premises Active Directory, Defender for Endpoint protects devices and endpoints, and Defender for Cloud Apps secures SaaS applications and shadow IT. None of these are the primary solution for blocking malicious links in email, chats, and channels. Therefore, the correct choice is Microsoft Defender for Office 365.

Question#3

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.


A. 

Explanation:
In Microsoft’s security portfolio, Microsoft Defender for Cloud is the service that provides cloud workload protection for Azure and hybrid cloud resources. Microsoft describes it as a “cloud-native application protection platform (CNAPP) that helps strengthen the security posture of your cloud resources and protect workloads across multicloud and hybrid environments.” The service delivers Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) and Cloud Workload Protection (CWP) by continuously assessing configurations and protecting workloads such as virtual machines, containers, databases, and storage. Documentation further states that Defender for Cloud “provides threat protection for workloads running in Azure, on-premises, and in other clouds,” giving a single pane to harden resources, detect active threats, and remediate.
By contrast, Azure Monitor focuses on telemetry and observability; the Microsoft cloud security benchmark is a set of prescriptive best practices; and Microsoft Secure Score is an aggregate metric reflecting security posture. None of those deliver the workload protection and active defense capabilities (e.g., recommendations, hardening, and threat detection for servers, containers, and PaaS services) that Defender for Cloud offers. Therefore, the sentence correctly completes as: Microsoft Defender for Cloud provides cloud workload protection for Azure and hybrid cloud resources.

Question#4

HOTSPOT
completes the sentence.


A. 

Explanation:
In Microsoft’s Security, Compliance, and Identity guidance, the Microsoft Service Trust Portal (STP) is identified as the public destination where Microsoft publishes independent audit reports, compliance certifications, assessment reports, and trust-related documentation for Microsoft cloud services. The documentation explains that the STP provides customers with access to materials such as SOC 1/SOC 2 reports, ISO/IEC certifications, audit summaries, and compliance guides, enabling organizations to evaluate Microsoft’s controls and map them to their own regulatory requirements. The STP is expressly positioned for transparency and due diligence, allowing customers and auditors to review Microsoft’s compliance posture and understand how Microsoft manages security, privacy, and compliance across its cloud platforms.
By contrast, the Microsoft Purview compliance portal is a tenant-admin portal used to configure and manage compliance solutions (e.g., DLP, Information Protection, eDiscovery, Insider Risk, Compliance Manager) within your organization―not a public repository of Microsoft’s audit artifacts. The Microsoft Purview governance portal focuses on data governance and cataloging scenarios. The Azure EA portal is used for Enterprise Agreement billing and usage management. Therefore, the public site for publishing audit reports and other compliance-related information for Microsoft cloud services is the Microsoft Service Trust Portal.

Question#5

Which three authentication methods can Microsoft Entra users use to reset their password? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. text message to a phone
B. certificate
C. mobile app notification
D. security questions
E. picture password

Explanation:
Microsoft Entra self-service password reset (SSPR) supports multiple verification methods that users can register and use to prove their identity during a reset. Microsoft’s documentation lists the SSPR methods as: “Mobile app notification,” “Mobile app code,” “Email,” “Mobile phone (text message or call),” “Office phone,” and “Security questions.” Administrators choose which of these are allowed and how many methods are required. During the reset flow, SSPR “prompts the user to verify with the registered methods” before permitting a password change. Notably, certificates and picture passwords are not SSPR verification methods in Microsoft Entra ID. Therefore, among the options provided: a text message to a phone (mobile phone), a mobile app notification (Microsoft Authenticator), and security questions are valid SSPR authentication methods; certificate and picture password are not supported for SSPR. This aligns with SCI learning content that positions SSPR as a user-empowering capability to securely restore access using admin-approved methods without help-desk intervention.

Exam CodeSC-900
Q & A: 215 Q&As         Updated:  Sep 22,2026

 

 Access Complete SC-900 Preparation Material

What This SC-900 Study Resource Helps You Do

Review Key Concepts

Review the technologies, products, processes, and practical skills covered by the current SC-900 exam objectives.

Practice Scenario-Based Questions

Work through independently developed questions designed to strengthen your understanding of technical scenarios and decision-making.

Identify Knowledge Gaps

Use your results and the provided explanations to find weaker areas and focus your study more effectively.

How to Use This SC-900 Preparation Material

Review the Exam Scope

Start by reviewing the topics covered by the SC-900 exam. Compare them with the official exam objectives to understand the required technologies, operational tasks, and practical skills, then identify the areas that deserve the most attention.

Practice Independently

Complete a focused set of practice questions for each topic. On your first attempt, avoid referring to notes, answers, or other study resources so that you can evaluate your current understanding more accurately.

Study the Explanations

Review the answers and explanations after completing each practice session. Understand why the correct option is appropriate for the given scenario and why the other options may be incorrect or less suitable.

Close Knowledge Gaps

Keep track of incorrect answers, unfamiliar concepts, and weaker knowledge areas. Review these topics using official documentation and practical experience, then answer the related questions again to reinforce your understanding and monitor your progress.

Independent SC-900 Preparation Resource

CertQueen independently develops its certification study materials for educational purposes. The practice questions are not copied from, recalled from, or presented as live or official exam questions.

CertQueen is not affiliated with, endorsed by, sponsored by, or authorized by any certification provider. Certification names, exam codes, product names, and related trademarks are the property of their respective owners and are referenced only for identification and educational purposes.